Would the phrase be better understood as Ptolemy being exceptionally emphatic! He has already written, μηδένα which in itself is strict enough as “not even one” or “no-one, without exception.” However, in addition to this, could it be possible that the following μὴ “not” is there to strengthen εἰσιέναι, to “come into,” “enter” and should not, therefore, be inserted into “those offering by burning”?
Perhaps 28a should simply read “Absolutely no persons may enter their own temple to make burnt offerings”? In other words, he was allowing entrance for prayer, but he was BANNING ALL BURNT OFFERINGS – the whole of Judaism’s ethos of atonement by substitution! To me, it is catastrophically more serious than it first appears from the current translation!
28b: πάντας δὲ τοὺς ᾿Ιουδαίους εἰς λαογραφίαν καὶ οἰκετικὴν διάθεσιν ἀχθῆναι
Oiketes would not have a translation as “common people,” but “servant.” The translation of λαογραφίαν in v 28b “registration among the common people” is apt, but where is there a translation of καὶ οἰκετικὴν διάθεσιν in the text?
It is absent!!
Should 28b have the literal translation of “Moreover, all the Jews to be brought into registration and a servant (οἰκετικὴν) disposition (διάθεσιν)”? That is, they are to be registered as SLAVES.
28c: τοὺς δὲ ἀντιλέγοντας βίᾳ φερομένους τοῦ ζῆν μεταστῆσαι
This would translate, literally as “moreover those reported (φερομένους) against the decree (ἀντιλέγοντας), by bodily strength their life to be placed in another way/changed” – a euphemism for killed. Although a more full translation might be “moreover those reported to be resisting the order are to be forcibly seized and put to death”, the more succinct current translation is still apt.
